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Eduzan / 09 Portfolio Management

PORT 5 – Measuring and Managing Market Risk

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Market risk is the risk that arises from movements in equity prices, interest rates, currency rates, and commodity prices. It is distinct from credit risk, which is the danger that a counterparty fails to make a promised payment, and from operational risk, which concerns breakdowns in an organization’s internal processes. Market risk is one of the more tractable financial risks to study, because financial markets generate a continuous stream of price data and decades of collective experience with that data. It is not, however, an easy risk to measure with precision: a portfolio’s current exposures can be identified fairly exactly, but the losses those exposures might produce in the future cannot, because the data used to estimate future losses come entirely from prices and rates that have already happened.

Risk management models exist to bridge that gap. They let a risk manager combine historical evidence with forward-looking judgment inside a disciplined framework, rather than relying on either alone. Value at risk, commonly abbreviated VaR, is the foundational model of this kind and the starting point for almost everything else in market risk measurement.

The formal definition of VaR

Value at risk is the minimum loss that would be expected to occur a specified percentage of the time over a specified period, given assumed market conditions. It can be stated in currency units or as a percentage of portfolio value. Consider the statement that the 5% VaR of a portfolio is €2.2 million over a one-day period. Three points make that statement precise.

First, VaR can be converted freely between currency and percentage terms. If the portfolio in question is worth €400 million, the €2.2 million VaR corresponds to a percentage VaR of 0.55% (€2.2 million divided by €400 million).

Second, VaR is a minimum loss, not a typical loss and not the worst possible loss. If someone instead asks how much could be lost in the absolute sense, the only honest answer is the entire portfolio value: in an unleveraged €400 million portfolio, the greatest conceivable loss is €400 million. VaR answers a narrower and more useful question: what is the smallest loss that occurs with a stated frequency.

Third, a VaR statement always carries a time horizon: it describes losses expected over a given stretch of time, one day in this case. A typical month has about 20 to 22 trading days, so a loss that occurs 5% of the time on a daily basis happens roughly once a month.

Putting the three points together, the statement can be restated as follows: a loss of at least €2.2 million on this portfolio would be expected to occur about once every month. A 5% VaR is often quoted as its complement, a 95% confidence level. This reading generally refers to a 5% VaR, but that phrasing is equivalent to saying a 95% level of confidence applies. All three of the following are correct ways of expressing the same idea: €2.2 million is the minimum loss expected 5% of the time; 5% of the time, losses will be at least €2.2 million; and 95% of the time, losses will be no worse than €2.2 million. A common misstatement is to say that 95% of the time the investor expects to lose less than €2.2 million, because that phrasing implies a loss occurs 95% of the time, merely a smaller one. In reality the portfolio makes money a large share of the time, and VaR says nothing about how often that happens.

Figure 1: Where the 5% VaR sits on a return distribution
Expected return 5% VaR point 1.65 sigma left Right tail: gains Left tail: losses
Under a normal distribution the 5% VaR sits exactly 1.65 standard deviations below the expected return. The curve here is symmetric only because the parametric method assumes normality; the historical and Monte Carlo methods introduced later do not require that assumption.

Choosing the threshold and the standard deviation link

There is no rule that fixes the VaR cutoff at 5%. A 1% threshold is common, corresponding to 2.33 standard deviations below the expected value under a normal distribution, and some managers use a one standard deviation move, which corresponds to a 16% VaR. No cutoff is inherently correct; a higher confidence level simply produces a larger VaR figure, and the choice is left to the decision maker.

The link between a 16% VaR and one standard deviation follows directly from the properties of the normal distribution. Half of all outcomes lie to the right of the expected value and half to the left. Within one standard deviation of the expected value lie 68% of all outcomes, so 34% lie between the expected value and one standard deviation below it, and another 34% lie between the expected value and one standard deviation above it. Adding the 50% that lie above the expected value to the 34% that lie between the expected value and one standard deviation below it gives 84% of outcomes lying above the point one standard deviation below the expected value. The remaining 16% lie below that point, which is exactly why a one standard deviation downward move is described as a 16% VaR, equivalently an 84% confidence level.

Just as the cutoff is a matter of judgment, so is the time horizon. VaR can be measured daily, weekly, monthly, quarterly, or annually; there is no formal requirement to use daily data. Selecting a threshold and a horizon are two of the many discretionary choices embedded in a VaR estimate, a point worth remembering when VaR is later assessed as a supposedly objective number.

Example 1 · Worked

A risk officer reports that the 5% VaR of a €400 million equity portfolio is €2.2 million for a one-day period.

1. Express this VaR as a percentage of portfolio value.
Solution. €2.2 million ÷ €400 million = 0.55%.
2. Roughly how often would the portfolio be expected to lose at least €2.2 million?
Solution. A 5% probability applied to a typical month of 20 to 22 trading days implies about one day a month.
3. Is it correct to say the portfolio’s maximum possible loss is €2.2 million?
Solution. No. VaR is a minimum loss expected at the stated frequency, not a ceiling on losses. Absent leverage, the true maximum loss on this portfolio is the full €400 million.
4. If the same portfolio’s 1% VaR is measured instead of the 5% VaR, would the resulting figure in euros be larger or smaller than €2.2 million?
Solution. Larger. A 1% threshold corresponds to 2.33 standard deviations below the expected return under a normal distribution, farther into the left tail than the 1.65 standard deviations associated with a 5% threshold, so the minimum loss identified at that lower frequency is bigger.
End of lesson.