EQ 3 – Free Cash Flow Valuation
Every discounted cash flow model rests on the same idea: the intrinsic value of a security is the present value of the cash it is expected to throw off. A dividend discount model applies that idea to the cash a company actually hands to shareholders. Free cash flow valuation applies it to the cash a company is able to hand over without damaging itself. That single change of definition is the whole reason this reading exists.
Two measures carry the argument. Free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) is the cash left for every provider of capital once operating expenses and taxes have been paid and once the investments in working capital and fixed capital that the business needs have been made. Put crudely, FCFF is operating cash flow less capital expenditure, and its claimants are common shareholders, bondholders and sometimes preferred shareholders. Free cash flow to equity (FCFE) goes one step further: it is the cash left for common shareholders alone, after operating expenses, interest, principal payments and the same necessary investments. FCFE is operating cash flow less capital expenditure less net payments to debtholders.
Neither figure is reported. Dividends are printed in the financial statements; free cash flow has to be constructed by the analyst from the income statement, the balance sheet and the statement of cash flows. That construction work is most of what follows.
When analysts reach for free cash flow
A survey of professional practice (Pinto, Robinson and Stowe 2019) reports that, among analysts valuing individual equities, 92.8% apply market multiples and 78.8% apply a discounted cash flow approach. Within that discounted cash flow group, the residual income model is used by 20.5%, the dividend discount model by 35.1% and a discounted free cash flow model by 86.9%. Where free cash flow models are chosen, the FCFF variety appears about twice as often as the FCFE variety. Free cash flow analysis is close to universal, and most analysts run more than one method side by side.
Four conditions in particular push an analyst away from dividends and towards free cash flow:
- The company pays no dividend at all, so a dividend discount model would have to invent the date of initiation, the opening level and the growth path from there.
- The company pays a dividend, but the amount differs materially from what the company could afford to pay.
- Free cash flow lines up with profitability over a forecast horizon the analyst is willing to defend.
- The investor takes a control perspective. Control brings discretion over the uses of free cash flow: dividends can be reset near the company capacity to pay, or the cash can be redirected to service acquisition debt.
That last point is the ownership perspective implicit in FCFE. A minority shareholder receives whatever the board declares. An owner who controls the company receives, in economic substance, the whole of FCFE, because the owner decides what to do with it. Valuing FCFE is therefore valuing the company from the point of view of someone who can direct the cash, which is exactly the right lens for a takeover analysis.
Why the obvious shortcuts fail
Analysts sometimes reach for cash flow from operations (CFO), net income, EBIT or EBITDA as if any of them could be discounted directly. None of them can. Each either double counts a cash flow or leaves one out. EBIT and EBITDA are pre-tax figures, whereas the cash available to investors is after tax. From an equity holder point of view, EBITDA ignores differences in capital structure, so it ignores after-tax interest and preferred dividends, and it ignores the funds bondholders supply to finance operating assets. None of these measures subtracts the reinvestment in fixed and working capital that the business must make to protect its long-run value. FCFF and FCFE are constructed precisely so that they can be dropped into a discounted cash flow framework without any of these defects.
The two routes to equity value
Because FCFF belongs to all suppliers of capital, it must be discounted at the weighted average cost of capital, which is the blended after-tax required return of those suppliers. The result is the value of the whole firm.
Two details in Equation 3 are examined regularly. The weights are market values of debt and equity, although analysts may substitute the weights of a target capital structure when those are known and differ from current market weights. And the tax rate is in principle the marginal corporate income tax rate, because the deduction applies at the margin.
The second route bypasses the firm entirely. FCFE is the cash flow to common shareholders, so the risk-adjusted rate that belongs with it is the required return on equity, r.
Choosing between the routes
In theory the two approaches agree. In practice the characteristics of the company decide which is easier to defend. Where the capital structure is stable, valuing FCFE is the shorter and more direct path. The FCFF model is usually chosen in two situations:
- A levered company with negative FCFE. Discounting a stream of negative numbers is unhelpful. Discount FCFF instead to obtain the value of operating assets, add excess cash and marketable securities and any other material non-operating assets, then subtract the market value of debt.
- A levered company whose capital structure is changing. Historical FCFF growth tends to reflect fundamentals more cleanly than FCFE growth, which swings with net borrowing. Looking forward, the required return on equity is more sensitive to leverage changes than WACC is, so holding the discount rate constant is harder to justify on the equity route.
Where the capital structure is expected to change substantially, a specialised approach such as adjusted present value (APV) can be used. Under APV, firm value is the sum of two pieces: the value of the company assuming it uses no debt, found by discounting FCFF at the unlevered cost of equity, plus the net present value of the effects of debt, such as the tax benefit of interest and the costs of financial distress.
The Gordon growth model assumes dividends grow forever at a constant rate. Assume the same of free cash flow and the infinite sums of Equations 1 and 4 collapse into two one-line expressions. These are the single-stage, or stable-growth, free cash flow models.
One warning is worth carrying into the exam room: the growth rate of FCFF and the growth rate of FCFE do not have to be equal, and frequently are not. FCFE growth absorbs changes in net borrowing that FCFF growth never sees. A question that hands you two different growth rates for the same company is not testing your arithmetic; it is testing whether you know that the two rates are separate inputs.
Cagiati Enterprises has FCFF of 700 million Swiss francs (CHF) and FCFE of CHF620 million. Its before-tax cost of debt is 5.7%, and equity holders require 11.8%. The target capital structure the company expects to maintain is 20% debt and 80% equity. The tax rate is 33.33% and FCFF is expected to grow forever at 5.0%. Debt outstanding has a market value of CHF2.2 billion, and 200 million common shares are outstanding.
WACC = 0.20 × 5.7% × (1 − 0.3333) + 0.80 × 11.8% = 10.2%.
The debt cost is taken after tax; the equity cost is already after corporate tax because net income is an after-tax figure.
Firm value = 700 × 1.05 ÷ (0.102 − 0.05) = 735 ÷ 0.052 = CHF14,134.6 million.
Subtract the market value of debt:
Equity value = 14,134.6 − 2,200 = CHF11,934.6 million.
V0 = CHF11,934.6 million ÷ 200 million shares = CHF59.67 per share.
Note that the FCFE figure of CHF620 million played no part in this calculation. It would be needed only for the direct FCFE route, which needs its own growth rate.
The most common starting point is net income available to common shareholders, usually the bottom line of the income statement. That figure is already net of depreciation, amortisation, interest, income taxes and preferred dividends, but not of common dividends. Four adjustments turn it into FCFF.
Take the four adjustments one at a time.
Net noncash charges
A noncash charge is an expense that reduced reported income without moving any cash. Depreciation is the archetype, and amortisation of intangibles is its counterpart. Both are added back. Where noncash decreases in net income exceed noncash increases, which is the usual case, the total adjustment is positive; where noncash increases dominate, it is negative. Other items in this category are treated in the next section.
After-tax interest expense
Interest, net of the tax it saved, was deducted on the way to net income. But interest is cash going to one of the company capital providers, and FCFF is defined as the cash available to all of them, so it must be added back. The reason the add-back is made after tax is consistency: FCFF is discounted at an after-tax WACC. It is legitimate to work instead with a pre-tax WACC and add back the full interest paid, but the definitions of FCFF and WACC must then match each other. Mixing the two conventions is a silent and expensive error.
Preferred dividends are handled the same way. If they were deducted in arriving at net income available to common shareholders, they must be added back for FCFF, because preferred shareholders are capital providers too.
Investment in fixed capital
This is the cash spent on the long-lived assets that support current and future operations: property, plant and equipment, and where necessary intangible assets such as trademarks. A cash acquisition of another company may be treated as a capital expenditure, which is conservative because it reduces FCFF. If the company received cash from disposing of fixed capital, that inflow reduces the outflow figure. The statement of cash flows is the natural source for both purchases and disposals. One trap: assets acquired without cash, for instance in exchange for stock or debt, never appear in the statement of cash flows and must be found in the footnotes. Such acquisitions do not change historical FCFF, but if the spending is necessary and will eventually be made in cash, the forecast must reflect it.
Investment in working capital
The final adjustment is the net increase in current assets less current liabilities. For valuation purposes the definition is narrower than the textbook one. Cash and cash equivalents are excluded, because the change in cash is the quantity being explained. Notes payable and the current portion of long-term debt are also excluded, because they carry explicit interest and are therefore financing items rather than operating items. Working capital for free cash flow is operating current assets minus operating current liabilities, and nothing else.
Cane Distribution, Inc., was incorporated on 31 December 2017 with initial capital of $224,000 of debt and $336,000 of common stock, and acts as a distributor of industrial goods. Management immediately invested the capital in fixed capital of $500,000 and working capital of $60,000. The working capital was entirely inventory. The fixed capital comprised nondepreciable property of $50,000 and depreciable property of $450,000, the latter with a 10-year useful life and no salvage value. Starting with net income, calculate FCFF for each of the three years after incorporation.
| Line | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|
| EBITDA | $200.00 | $220.00 | $242.00 |
| Depreciation | 45.00 | 49.50 | 54.45 |
| Operating income | 155.00 | 170.50 | 187.55 |
| Interest expense at 7% | 15.68 | 17.25 | 18.97 |
| Pre-tax income | 139.32 | 153.25 | 168.58 |
| Income taxes at 30% | 41.80 | 45.97 | 50.58 |
| Net income | $97.52 | $107.28 | $118.00 |
| Line | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Cash | $0.00 | $108.92 | $228.74 | $360.54 |
| Receivables | 0.00 | 100.00 | 110.00 | 121.00 |
| Inventory | 60.00 | 66.00 | 72.60 | 79.86 |
| Current assets | 60.00 | 274.92 | 411.34 | 561.40 |
| Fixed assets at cost | 500.00 | 500.00 | 550.00 | 605.00 |
| Accumulated depreciation | 0.00 | 45.00 | 94.50 | 148.95 |
| Assets, total | $560.00 | $729.92 | $866.84 | $1,017.45 |
| Payables | $0.00 | $50.00 | $55.00 | $60.50 |
| Long-term debt, current portion | 0.00 | 0.00 | 0.00 | 0.00 |
| Current liabilities | 0.00 | 50.00 | 55.00 | 60.50 |
| Debt, long-term | 224.00 | 246.40 | 271.04 | 298.14 |
| Stock, common | 336.00 | 336.00 | 336.00 | 336.00 |
| Earnings retained | 0.00 | 97.52 | 204.80 | 322.80 |
| Liabilities and equity, total | $560.00 | $729.92 | $866.84 | $1,017.45 |
| Line | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Receivables | $0.00 | $100.00 | $110.00 | $121.00 |
| Inventory | 60.00 | 66.00 | 72.60 | 79.86 |
| Operating current assets | 60.00 | 166.00 | 182.60 | 200.86 |
| Payables | 0.00 | 50.00 | 55.00 | 60.50 |
| Working capital | $60.00 | $116.00 | $127.60 | $140.36 |
| Year-on-year increase | $56.00 | $11.60 | $12.76 |
Cash is excluded from working capital, and so is the current portion of long-term debt, which here is zero in every year.
After-tax interest for 2018 is 15.68 × (1 − 0.30) = 10.98; for 2019 it is 17.25 × 0.70 = 12.08; for 2020 it is 18.97 × 0.70 = 13.28.
Fixed capital investment is the rise in gross fixed assets: nil in 2018, 550.00 − 500.00 = 50.00 in 2019, and 605.00 − 550.00 = 55.00 in 2020.
Working capital investment comes straight from the third table.
| Line | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Net income | $97.52 | $107.28 | $118.00 |
| Depreciation added back | 45.00 | 49.50 | 54.45 |
| Interest × (1 − tax rate) | 10.98 | 12.08 | 13.28 |
| Fixed capital investment | (0.00) | (50.00) | (55.00) |
| Working capital investment | (56.00) | (11.60) | (12.76) |
| Free cash flow to the firm | $97.50 | $107.26 | $117.97 |
The statement of cash flows has already done part of the work. Cash flow from operations incorporates the add-back of noncash expenses and the change in operating working capital, so starting there removes two of the four adjustments in Equation 7.
Neither depreciation nor the working capital change appears here, because CFO already contains both. Only two items remain: after-tax interest, which was taken out of net income and therefore out of CFO, and capital expenditure, which the operating section never touched. Under US GAAP interest paid must sit in operating cash flow. Under IFRS a company may place it in either operating or financing, although research by Gordon, Henry, Jorgensen and Linthicum (2017) reports that most IFRS-reporting European firms put interest paid in the operating section. Check the classification before applying Equation 8, because if interest paid was reported as a financing outflow it was never subtracted from CFO and must not be added back.
The statement of cash flows for Cane Distribution is set out below, prepared using the indirect method, which derives operating cash flow from net income through a list of adjustments. The tax rate is 30%.
| Line | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Net income | $97.52 | $107.28 | $118.00 |
| Depreciation added back | 45.00 | 49.50 | 54.45 |
| Receivables, increase | (100.00) | (10.00) | (11.00) |
| Inventory, increase | (6.00) | (6.60) | (7.26) |
| Payables, increase | 50.00 | 5.00 | 5.50 |
| Cash flow from operations | 86.52 | 145.18 | 159.69 |
| PP&E purchased (investing) | 0.00 | (50.00) | (55.00) |
| Borrowing net of repayment (financing) | 22.40 | 24.64 | 27.10 |
| Total cash flow | 108.92 | 119.82 | 131.80 |
| Cash at start of year | 0.00 | 108.92 | 228.74 |
| Cash at end of year | $108.92 | $228.74 | $360.54 |
| Memo: interest paid in cash | ($15.68) | ($17.25) | ($18.97) |
| Memo: taxes paid in cash | ($41.80) | ($45.98) | ($50.57) |
| Line | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Cash flow from operations | $86.52 | $145.18 | $159.69 |
| Interest × (1 − tax rate) | 10.98 | 12.08 | 13.28 |
| Fixed capital investment | (0.00) | (50.00) | (55.00) |
| Free cash flow to the firm | $97.50 | $107.26 | $117.97 |
Whichever entry point an analyst chooses, some items refuse to behave. This section deals with the two families of them: cash flow statement classification choices that differ between reporting frameworks, and noncash adjustments whose treatment depends on judgement rather than on a rule.
Where interest and dividends are allowed to sit
IFRS permits interest paid to be reported as operating or financing, and permits dividends paid to be reported as operating or financing. US GAAP is stricter: interest paid to debt providers belongs in operating cash flow, alongside interest income and dividend income, while dividends paid to equity providers are a financing item.
| Cash flow | Under IFRS | Under US GAAP |
|---|---|---|
| Interest received | Either operating or investing | Operating only |
| Interest paid | Either operating or financing | Operating only |
| Dividends received | Either operating or investing | Operating only |
| Dividends paid | Either operating or financing | Financing only |
The add-back of after-tax interest in Equation 8 is only correct if interest paid was deducted inside CFO in the first place.
Noncash items and the direction of the adjustment
The operating section of the statement of cash flows lists the adjustments that bridge net income to operating cash flow. The same list, with the same signs, bridges net income to FCFF.
| Noncash item | Treatment when moving from net income to FCFF |
|---|---|
| Depreciation expense | Add back |
| Amortisation expense and impairment of intangibles | Add back |
| Restructuring charges, expense | Add back |
| Restructuring charges, income from a reversal | Subtract |
| Amortisation of long-term bond discounts | Add back |
| Amortisation of long-term bond premiums | Subtract |
| Losses on non-operating activity | Add back |
| Gains on non-operating activity | Subtract |
| Deferred taxes | Add back, but with the care described below |
Any item that was expensed in arriving at net income without a matching cash outflow in the period has to be reversed. Gains and losses are removed for two separate reasons. First, the underlying transaction is usually not an operating activity: selling a fixed asset is an investing activity, so its effect must leave the operating section. Second, the reported gain or loss is not the same number as the cash involved. Consider equipment with a book value of €60,000 sold for €100,000. The €40,000 gain flows into net income, so it is subtracted in deriving operating cash flow, while the full €100,000 shows up as an investing inflow. Reverse the price and the logic reverses with it: the same equipment sold for €40,000 produces a €20,000 loss, and that loss is added back.
Deferred taxes
Deferred taxes arise because income and expenses are recognised on different timetables for financial reporting and for tax. The tax expense on the income statement is therefore not the cash paid. Over a long enough period the differences reverse and net to nothing. The forecasting implication follows directly: if the analyst is trying to isolate the persistent part of FCFF, deferred tax changes that are expected to reverse soon should not be added back. If instead the company is growing and can defer the liability indefinitely, the add-back is justified, though an acquirer should remember the liability may one day come due.
The mirror image also occurs. A company may expense restructuring charges that are not tax deductible, or recognise revenue for tax before it recognises it for reporting. Taxable income then exceeds reported income, cash taxes exceed reported tax expense, and a deferred tax asset appears. That amount is subtracted in deriving operating cash flow. If the deferred tax asset is expected to reverse shortly, the analyst should leave the subtraction out of a forecast to avoid understating future cash flow. If the charges are expected to recur indefinitely, the subtraction belongs in the forecast.
Share-based compensation
Both IFRS and US GAAP require an expense in the income statement for options granted to employees. Granting and expensing options move no cash, so the expense is a noncash charge. The longer-term cash consequences are real, though. When an employee exercises, the company receives the strike price, and that receipt is classified as a financing cash flow. A company may also obtain a tax benefit from issuing options, which can raise operating cash flow without raising net income, and both frameworks require part of the tax effect to be shown as financing rather than operating. Read the statement of cash flows and the footnotes together, exclude any of these flows that are not expected to persist, and remember the separate effect on the share count: when computing value per share, the shares expected to be outstanding after option exercise may be the more appropriate denominator.
Sustainability of the historical baseline
Any forecast built on history inherits history distortions. Before extrapolating a historical FCFF or FCFE figure, satisfy yourself that the base year is free of non-recurring items. Working capital swings deserve particular suspicion, because a favourable swing in one year can look like operating strength when it is simply a balance that cannot fall any further.
Duplico Holdings PLC operates in Ireland, the United Kingdom, Continental Europe and Morocco, and reports under IFRS. The operating section of its statement of cash flows, and one line of the investing section, appear below. Analysts expect depreciation expense to rise substantially as Duplico grows.
| Line, year ended 31 March | 2022 | 2021 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Pre-tax profit | 633.0 | 420.9 | 341.0 |
| Depreciation | 309.2 | 277.7 | 235.4 |
| Inventories, increase | (0.1) | (0.2) | (0.4) |
| Trade receivables, increase | (0.9) | (6.3) | (2.5) |
| Other current assets, decrease or increase | 34.5 | (20.9) | 11.6 |
| Trade payables, increase or decrease | 30.4 | (3.2) | 21.3 |
| Accrued expenses, increase | 11.6 | 135.0 | 189.7 |
| Other creditors, increase or decrease | 19.7 | (10.0) | 30.1 |
| Maintenance provisions, increase or decrease | 6.6 | (7.9) | 30.7 |
| Disposal gain on property, plant and equipment | (10.4) | nil | (2.0) |
| Impairment loss, available-for-sale financial asset | nil | nil | 13.5 |
| Interest receivable, decrease or increase | nil | 1.6 | (1.2) |
| Interest payable, increase or decrease | 1.1 | 2.3 | (0.5) |
| Retirement costs | (0.1) | (0.1) | (0.1) |
| Share-based payments | (0.7) | 3.3 | 4.9 |
| Income tax paid | (13.6) | (5.9) | nil |
| Net cash from operating activities | 1,020.3 | 786.3 | 871.5 |
| Capital expenditure on property, plant and equipment | (317.6) | (897.2) | (997.8) |
Depreciation is a deduction in computing net income, so a rising depreciation charge lowers net income by (Depreciation expense) × (1 − Tax rate). In computing CFO, however, the whole charge is added back. The gap between the full add-back and the after-tax reduction in net income is (Tax rate) × (Depreciation expense), and that gap is a positive increment to CFO. So the projected increase is bad for future net income and good for future operating cash flow. At worst, if the company runs at a loss, depreciation is neutral for CFO.
On sustainability: a falling asset balance or a falling liability balance cannot go on forever. In the limit the balance reaches zero and no further contribution is possible. That is not what is happening here. Net income is growing and capital expenditure shows the fixed asset base expanding, so Duplico looks like a growing business, and a growing business needs more working capital, not less. Investors should expect working capital to consume cash in future years rather than release it.
FCFE is FCFF minus the cash that belongs to debtholders plus the cash that debtholders supply. Two adjustments, no more.
The relationship runs in both directions. Given FCFE, add back after-tax interest and subtract net borrowing to recover FCFF. Substituting Equation 9 into Equations 7 and 8 gives the two direct routes to FCFE:
Applying Equation 9 to the Cane Distribution figures shows the mechanics on numbers already derived.
| Line | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Free cash flow to the firm | 97.50 | 107.26 | 117.97 |
| Interest paid × (1 − tax rate) | (10.98) | (12.08) | (13.28) |
| Debt borrowed | 22.40 | 24.64 | 27.10 |
| Debt repaid | (0) | (0) | (0) |
| Free cash flow to equity | 108.92 | 119.82 | 131.79 |
FCFE exceeds FCFF in all three years because Cane borrowed steadily and repaid nothing.
FCFE is the dividend the company could pay
FCFE is what remains after operating expenses and taxes, after the required investment, and after every transaction with the other suppliers of capital. It is therefore the amount the company could afford to distribute. Actual dividends are usually a different number, and often a very different one. Boards manage dividends: they raise them gradually, they resist cutting them, they hold them flat when earnings fall and they hold them back when earnings surge. The consequence is that earnings are far more volatile than dividends, and neither series tracks FCFE closely.
The financial statements of Pitts Corporation follow. The statement of cash flows uses a convention in which the positive figures of $400 million and $85 million for cash used in investing and financing activities denote outflows and are therefore subtracted. Net income for 2020 was $240 million.
| Line | 2019 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|
| Cash and cash equivalents | $190 | $200 |
| Receivables | 560 | 600 |
| Inventories | 410 | 440 |
| Current assets | 1,160 | 1,240 |
| Fixed assets at cost | 2,200 | 2,600 |
| Accumulated depreciation | (900) | (1,200) |
| Fixed assets, net | 1,300 | 1,400 |
| Assets, total | $2,460 | $2,640 |
| Payables | $285 | $300 |
| Notes payable | 200 | 250 |
| Accrued taxes and expenses | 140 | 150 |
| Current liabilities | 625 | 700 |
| Debt, long-term | 865 | 890 |
| Stock, common | 100 | 100 |
| Paid-in capital, additional | 200 | 200 |
| Earnings retained | 670 | 750 |
| Shareholders equity | 970 | 1,050 |
| Liabilities and equity, total | $2,460 | $2,640 |
| Line | 2020 |
|---|---|
| Revenues, total | $3,000 |
| Operating costs and expenses | 2,200 |
| EBITDA | 800 |
| Depreciation | 300 |
| EBIT, operating income | 500 |
| Interest expense | 100 |
| Pre-tax income | 400 |
| Taxes at 40% | 160 |
| Net income | $240 |
| Dividends declared | $160 |
| Retained earnings, change | $80 |
| Earnings per share | $0.48 |
| Dividends per share | $0.32 |
| Line | 2020 |
|---|---|
| Net income | $240 |
| Depreciation added back | 300 |
| Receivables | (40) |
| Inventories | (30) |
| Payables | 15 |
| Accrued taxes and expenses | 10 |
| Cash provided by operating activities | $495 |
| Fixed assets purchased | 400 |
| Cash used in investing activities | $400 |
| Notes payable | (50) |
| Long-term financing issued | (25) |
| Dividends on common stock | 160 |
| Cash used in financing activities | $85 |
| Cash, increase for the year | 10 |
| Cash at start of year | 190 |
| Cash at end of year | $200 |
| Memo: interest paid | $100 |
| Memo: income taxes paid | $160 |
FCFF = NI + NCC + Int(1 − Tax rate) − FCInv − WCInv
FCFF = 240 + 300 + 60 − 400 − 45 = $155 million.
FCFE = FCFF − Int(1 − Tax rate) + Net borrowing = 155 − 60 + 75 = $170 million.
FCFE = 240 + 300 − 400 − 45 + 75 = $170 million.
FCFF = CFO + Int(1 − Tax rate) − FCInv = 495 + 60 − 400 = $155 million.
FCFE = CFO − FCInv + Net borrowing = 495 − 400 + 75 = $170 million.
FCFE normally comes in below FCFF, because after-tax interest usually outweighs net borrowing. Here it is the other way round: FCFE of $170 million exceeds FCFF of $155 million because the company borrowed heavily during the year.
Net income and CFO are the usual entry points, but the income statement offers two more. Both derivations begin from Equation 7 with depreciation assumed to be the only noncash charge.
Start with FCFF = NI + Dep + Int(1 − Tax rate) − FCInv − WCInv, and write net income in terms of EBIT: NI = (EBIT − Int)(1 − Tax rate) = EBIT(1 − Tax rate) − Int(1 − Tax rate). Substituting, the two interest terms cancel:
Do the same from EBITDA. Here NI = (EBITDA − Dep − Int)(1 − Tax rate), which expands to EBITDA(1 − Tax rate) − Dep(1 − Tax rate) − Int(1 − Tax rate). Substituting into Equation 7 leaves only the tax portion of depreciation:
The contrast between Equations 12 and 13 is the point worth memorising. From EBIT you add back all of depreciation, because EBIT is already net of it and the deduction has already sheltered tax. From EBITDA you add back only the tax shield, Dep × Tax rate, because taxing EBITDA directly would have overtaxed the company by the amount the depreciation deduction saved.
More generally, many of the noncash add-backs required when starting from net income are unnecessary from EBIT or EBITDA, simply because those charges were deducted further down the income statement. Whether an adjustment is needed depends on where in the income statement the charge sits, and the form of the adjustment depends on whether the charge is tax deductible. To move on to FCFE from either equation, apply Equation 9: subtract after-tax interest and add net borrowing.
Pitts Corporation, whose statements appear in Example 5, reported EBIT of $500 million and EBITDA of $800 million in 2020. The tax rate is 40%, depreciation is $300 million, fixed capital investment is $400 million, working capital investment is $45 million, interest expense is $100 million and net borrowing is $75 million.
EBIT(1 − Tax rate) = 500 × (1 − 0.40) = $300
Plus depreciation added back = 300
Less fixed capital investment = 400
Less working capital investment = 45
FCFF = 500(1 − 0.40) + 300 − 400 − 45 = $155 million.
Then FCFE = FCFF − Int(1 − Tax rate) + Net borrowing = 155 − 100(1 − 0.40) + 75 = $170 million.
EBITDA(1 − Tax rate) = 800 × (1 − 0.40) = $480
Plus depreciation tax shield = 300 × 0.40 = 120
Less fixed capital investment = 400
Less working capital investment = 45
FCFF = 800(1 − 0.40) + 300(0.40) − 400 − 45 = $155 million.
And again FCFE = 155 − 100(1 − 0.40) + 75 = $170 million. Four entry points, one answer.
Everything so far has computed free cash flow from the income and cash flow statements, which is the sources view: where did the cash come from. There is a second view. Follow the money out instead of in, and you get the uses view. It serves two purposes: it is an arithmetic check on the sources calculation, and it exposes what management is actually doing with capital structure and cash.
A company with positive FCFF has three places to put it. It can retain the cash, raising balances of cash and marketable securities. It can pay debt providers, through interest and through principal repayment beyond new borrowing. Or it can pay equity providers, through dividends and through share repurchases beyond new share issuance. When free cash flow is negative, the same three channels run in reverse: draw down cash, borrow, or issue equity.
Notice what these transactions do to leverage. Suppose free cash flow is zero and cash balances are unchanged. Raising cash by net new borrowing and spending it on dividends or net buybacks increases leverage. Raising cash by issuing shares and spending it on principal repayments beyond new borrowing reduces leverage. The uses statement makes that shift visible in a way the sources statement does not.
| Component | Uses of FCFF | Uses of FCFE |
|---|---|---|
| Change in cash and equivalents held | Included | Included |
| After-tax interest paid | Included | Excluded |
| Principal repaid beyond new borrowing | Included | Excluded |
| Cash dividends | Included | Included |
| Buybacks beyond new share issuance | Included | Included |
Where new borrowing exceeds repayment, the excess enters as a negative item. Where share issuance exceeds repurchases, that excess is negative too. Uses must equal sources in both columns.
Pitts Corporation reconciled
Take the 2020 figures from Example 5. Cash and equivalents rose by $10 million (200 − 190). After-tax interest was $60 million, being $100 million × (1 − 0.40). Net borrowing was $75 million, from $50 million of notes payable plus $25 million of long-term debt. Cash dividends were $160 million. Share repurchases and share issuance were both zero.
| Item | Uses of FCFF | Uses of FCFE |
|---|---|---|
| Increase in cash and equivalents held | $10 | $10 |
| After-tax interest to debt providers | $60 | |
| New borrowing | ($75) | |
| Dividends to equity providers | $160 | $160 |
| Buybacks beyond new share issuance | $0 | $0 |
| Total | $155 | $170 |
Both totals match the sources figures computed earlier, $155 million and $170 million. The interpretation is more interesting than the arithmetic. Operating cash flow of $495 million comfortably covered capital expenditure of $400 million, so the extra debt was not needed for investment. It went, in part, to pay the dividend. Pitts was managing its capital structure by adding leverage and passing the proceeds to shareholders, and only the uses view makes that visible at a glance.
Computing free cash flow from history is mechanical. Forecasting it is not. There are two broad approaches, and the choice between them depends on whether the future is expected to resemble the past.
Approach one: grow the historical figure
The simplest method applies a constant growth rate to a current level of free cash flow, adjusted first to strip out non-recurring components. It is defensible when free cash flow has in fact grown steadily and when the historical relationships between free cash flow and the underlying drivers are expected to hold.
Pitts Corporation reported FCFF of $155 million in 2020, as computed in Examples 5 and 6. Assume growth in FCFF continues at its historical rate of 15% a year.
| Year | 2020 actual | 2021 | 2022 | 2023 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| FCFF, millions | 155.00 | 178.25 | 204.99 | 235.74 |
Approach two: forecast the components from sales
The richer method forecasts the pieces separately: EBIT(1 − Tax rate), noncash charges, fixed capital investment and working capital investment. EBIT can be projected directly, or projected as a margin on forecast sales. Investment needs can be tied to the historical relationship between sales increases and capital spending. The sales-based version rests on one large assumption:
Fixed capital investment in excess of depreciation, and investment in working capital, both bear a constant relationship to the forecast increase in sales.
For forecasting FCFE, one more assumption is added: the debt ratio (DR), meaning debt as a percentage of debt plus equity, is constant. That fixed proportion then tells you how much of the incremental investment is funded with debt. The method treats depreciation as the only noncash charge, so it works poorly where that approximation is weak.
If depreciation approximates the annual cost of maintaining the existing capital stock, then fixed capital investment in excess of depreciation is the spending needed for growth. This is the economic content of the method: capital expenditure has a maintenance component, which tracks the level of sales, and a growth component, which tracks the increase in sales. The inputs required are forecasts of sales growth, of the after-tax operating margin for FCFF or the net profit margin for FCFE, of the relationship of incremental fixed capital investment to sales increases, of the relationship of working capital investment to sales increases, and an estimate of DR.
Rather than adding all depreciation back and subtracting all capital expenditure, this approach nets the two and subtracts only the excess. Where depreciation really is the only significant noncash charge, it reproduces the earlier equations exactly.
The target debt ratio shortcut for FCFE
Assume depreciation is the only noncash charge and Equation 10 simplifies to:
Assume further that a constant share DR of the incremental investment is debt financed. Then net borrowing no longer needs a separate forecast: Net borrowing = DR(FCInv − Dep) + DR(WCInv). Substituting that into Equation 14 and collecting terms gives the workhorse expression:
Read Equation 15 in words and it becomes obvious. Shareholders keep net income, less the part of the growth investment that shareholders themselves have to fund. The debt-funded part costs them nothing today.
Carla Espinosa is following Pitts Corporation at the end of 2020. Sales for 2020 were $3,000 million, and she assumes sales grew by $300 million from 2019 to 2020. She expects sales to grow 10% a year thereafter, and expects the company to hold its historical EBIT margin and its historical proportions of incremental investment. EBIT for 2020 is $500 million, so the EBIT margin is 16.67% (500 ÷ 3,000), and the tax rate is 40%. Capital expenditure in 2020 was $400 million and depreciation was $300 million.
| Line | Amount, millions | Basis |
|---|---|---|
| Sales | $3,300 | Up 10% |
| EBIT | 550 | 16.67% of sales |
| EBIT(1 − tax rate) | 330 | Adjusted for the 40% tax rate |
| Incremental fixed capital | (100) | 33.33% of the sales increase |
| Incremental working capital | (45) | 15% of the sales increase |
| FCFF | $185 |
Espinosa now forecasts five years. She doubts Pitts can hold its margin and assumes the EBIT margin slides from 16.67% to 14.5% over the period. Sales growth stays at 10%, the tax rate at 40%, and the two incremental investment rates at 33.33% and 15%.
| Line | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 | Year 5 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sales growth | 10.00% | 10.00% | 10.00% | 10.00% | 10.00% |
| EBIT margin | 16.67% | 16.00% | 15.50% | 15.00% | 14.50% |
| Tax rate | 40.00% | 40.00% | 40.00% | 40.00% | 40.00% |
| Incremental fixed capital rate | 33.33% | 33.33% | 33.33% | 33.33% | 33.33% |
| Incremental working capital rate | 15.00% | 15.00% | 15.00% | 15.00% | 15.00% |
| Sales | $3,300.00 | $3,630.00 | $3,993.00 | $4,392.30 | $4,831.53 |
| EBIT | 550.00 | 580.80 | 618.92 | 658.85 | 700.57 |
| EBIT(1 − tax rate) | 330.00 | 348.48 | 371.35 | 395.31 | 420.34 |
| Incremental fixed capital | (100.00) | (110.00) | (121.00) | (133.10) | (146.41) |
| Incremental working capital | (45.00) | (49.50) | (54.45) | (59.90) | (65.88) |
| FCFF | $185.00 | $188.98 | $195.90 | $202.31 | $208.05 |
Prior-year sales are $3,000.00 million.
The lesson is in the last row. Sales compound at 10% a year, yet FCFF grows by only about 2% to 4% a year, because the margin erodes and the investment required to support the extra sales rises in step with it. A model that grew FCFF at the sales growth rate would overstate value badly. The same framework can start from net income, CFO or EBITDA instead of sales.Espinosa now forecasts FCFE for 2021 using the same expectations as Example 8, plus two more: the net profit margin stays at 8% (240 ÷ 3,000), and the company funds incremental fixed and working capital investment with 50% debt, its target debt ratio.
| Line | Amount, millions | Basis |
|---|---|---|
| Sales | $3,300 | Up 10% |
| Net income | 264 | 8.0% of sales |
| Incremental fixed capital | (100) | 33.33% of the sales increase |
| Incremental working capital | (45) | 15% of the sales increase |
| Net borrowing | 72.50 | (100 + 45) × 50% |
| FCFE | $191.50 |
Where a company carries material noncash charges other than depreciation, this shortcut becomes unreliable and the analyst should forecast each component of FCFE separately.
When the statements do not articulate
In many published accounts, the change in a balance sheet item does not equal the corresponding change shown in the statement of cash flows. Statements in which the balance sheet movements in working capital accounts differ from the working capital amounts in the cash flow statement are described as lacking articulation, and it is not a rare condition. Research points to several causes (see, among others, Huefner, Ketz and Largay 1989; Wilkins and Loudder 2000; Hribar and Collins 2002; Shi and Zhang 2011; Casey, Gao, Kirschenheiter, Li and Pandit 2016). Two stand out: acquisitions or divestitures, including related discontinued operations, and the presence of nondomestic subsidiaries. An inventory balance can rise because the company bought goods from suppliers, which is operating, or because it absorbed the inventory of an acquired business, which is investing. Currency translation of foreign earnings introduces further gaps.
Where a company has been active in acquisitions or disposals, the reported CFO figure may be contaminated by investing and financing flows, and using it unadjusted as the base of a free cash flow forecast will mislead. The remedy is more detail: adjust the CFO starting point, or forecast the individual components and pay close attention to how forecast sales connect to specific working capital items.
Why analysts often prefer FCFE to a dividend discount model
Neither model has a theoretical edge. The preference arises in application. Many companies pay no dividend or a token one, which forces a dividend discount model to guess the initiation date, the opening level and the growth path. Dividends are set by the board, so they may signal long-run profitability imperfectly, with some companies paying far less than free cash flow and others far more. And when a company is being analysed as a takeover target, the relevant measure is the cash that can be distributed without impairing value, not the cash the current board chooses to distribute, because the new owner will decide that question afresh.
Given identical and mutually consistent inputs, a dividend discount model and an FCFE model return the same value. One special case makes this transparent: if FCFE equals the cash dividend every year, the two streams are identical and both are discounted at the required return on equity. In practice the two differ, but they are driven by the same forces. A fast-growing company with attractive projects retains earnings and pays small dividends, and that same company invests heavily in fixed and working capital, which depresses FCFE. A mature company that invests little tends to have both high dividends and high FCFE.
What dividends, buybacks, issuance and leverage do to free cash flow
Look again at the two definitions:
FCFF = NI + NCC + Int(1 − Tax rate) − FCInv − WCInv, and FCFE = NI + NCC − FCInv − WCInv + Net borrowing.
Dividends, share repurchases and share issuance are absent from both. That is not an oversight. Free cash flow is the cash available to investors; dividends and buybacks are what is done with it afterwards. Transactions between a company and its own shareholders therefore leave free cash flow untouched.
Leverage is the exception, and only partially. An increase in leverage does not change FCFF, though it may change the intermediate figures used to reach it. It changes FCFE twice over. In the year the debt is issued, FCFE rises by the amount borrowed, because net borrowing is a direct addition. In every subsequent year, FCFE is lower by the after-tax interest on that debt. Leverage also raises the interest tax shield, which reduces corporate taxes. The investing and financing decisions taken today shape the free cash flows of many later years.
The cost of using an earnings number instead
Because free cash flow analysis is laborious, some practitioners substitute net income, EBIT, EBITDA or CFO in a discounted cash flow model. Each substitution introduces a systematic bias, in one direction or the other, and the error is not small. Definitions of free cash flow published in textbooks, articles and commercial databases are frequently built for purposes other than valuation, so using a supplied number without knowing its definition invites mistakes. Anyone consuming research should establish which definition is in use; anyone producing it should state the definition plainly.
The most popular shortcut is EBITDA as a stand-in for FCFF. Equation 13 shows exactly what is being thrown away: FCFF = EBITDA(1 − Tax rate) + Dep(Tax rate) − FCInv − WCInv. Depreciation as a proportion of EBITDA varies enormously across companies and industries, and so does the depreciation tax shield. FCFF captures that variation; EBITDA does not. EBITDA also ignores investment in fixed and working capital altogether. And there is a discount rate problem on top: EBITDA is pre-tax, so a consistent model would have to discount it at a pre-tax rate, whereas the WACC used with FCFF is an after-tax cost of capital. EBITDA is a poor proxy for FCFF and a worse one for FCFE, since from a shareholder point of view it also ignores after-tax interest and the cash flows from new borrowing and repayment.
A job applicant offers the following view: the definitions of FCFE and FCFF are needlessly complicated, the best measure of FCFE is simply net income taken straight from the income statement with no further adjustment, and the best measure of FCFF is EBITDA, also taken straight from the income statement.
Net income attributable to common shareholders
Add net noncash charges
Deduct fixed capital investment
Deduct working capital investment
Add net borrowing
Net income omits every one of the last four. Investment in fixed or working capital reduces the cash a shareholder could receive, as do loan repayments, while new borrowing increases it. There is one special case in which the applicant is right: net income equals FCFE when new investment exactly equals depreciation, there is no working capital investment, and there is no net borrowing. That is a description of a company standing still, not of a normal company.
FCFF = EBITDA(1 − Tax rate) + Depreciation(Tax rate) − FCInv − WCInv
The applicant ignores taxes, which plainly reduce the cash available to capital providers. The applicant ignores the depreciation tax shield, whose size varies widely between companies. And the applicant ignores investment in fixed and working capital entirely. Equating EBITDA with FCFF assumes a company that pays no tax and never reinvests.
Everything so far assumed two sources of capital, debt and common equity. Preferred stock is a third, and although relatively few companies use it, the adjustments are worth knowing because they follow a clean logic.
Preferred stock behaves like debt in most respects, with one significant difference: preferred dividends are not tax deductible, whereas interest generally is. That difference shows up in the WACC, where the preferred component enters at its full required return with no (1 − Tax rate) factor.
In Equation 7, which starts from net income available to common shareholders, preferred dividends paid have already been deducted and must be added back to reach FCFF, exactly as after-tax interest is. In Equation 10, which starts from the same net income figure to reach FCFE, no add-back is required, because preferred dividends are genuinely not available to common shareholders. Issuing preferred stock increases the cash available to common shareholders and redeeming it decreases that cash, so net preferred issuance joins net borrowing in the FCFE calculation.
Welch Corporation is financed with bonds, preferred stock and common stock. Market values and before-tax required returns are as follows.
| Source | Market value ($) | Required return (%) |
|---|---|---|
| Bonds | 400 | 8.0 |
| Preferred stock | 100 | 8.0 |
| Common stock | 500 | 12.0 |
| Total | 1,000 |
Further data, in millions of dollars: $110 of net income attributable to common shareholders; $32 of interest expense; $8 of preferred dividends; $40 of depreciation; $70 placed in fixed capital; $20 placed in working capital; $25 of net borrowing. The tax rate is 30%. FCFF is expected to grow at a stable 4.0% and FCFE at a stable 5.4%.
WACC = (400 ÷ 1,000) × 8% × (1 − 0.30) + (100 ÷ 1,000) × 8% + (500 ÷ 1,000) × 12% = 9.04%.
FCFF = NI + NCC + Int(1 − Tax rate) + Preferred dividends − FCInv − WCInv
FCFF = 110 + 40 + 32(1 − 0.30) + 8 − 70 − 20 = $90.4 million.
Firm value = 90.4 × 1.04 ÷ (0.0904 − 0.04) = 94.016 ÷ 0.0504 = $1,865.40 million.
Common equity is the firm value less the value of debt and preferred stock, since both rank ahead:
Equity = 1,865.40 − 400 − 100 = $1,365.40 million.
FCFE = NI + NCC − FCInv − WCInv + Net borrowing = 110 + 40 − 70 − 20 + 25 = $85 million.
Equity = 85 × 1.054 ÷ (0.12 − 0.054) = 89.59 ÷ 0.066 = $1,357.42 million.
The two routes give $1,365.40 million and $1,357.42 million. They differ only because the two growth rates, 4.0% and 5.4%, are separate inputs rather than mutually derived ones. In an exam, quoting the wrong growth rate for the route you have chosen is a far more common error than any of the arithmetic here.
Two extensions of the single-stage model deserve separate treatment. The first replaces nominal quantities with real ones. The second stops treating the output as a single number.
Working in real terms
Valuing inflation-adjusted cash flows with an inflation-adjusted discount rate has obvious appeal where inflation is high or unstable. Analysts apply the technique to domestic stocks too, but it earns its keep on international ones. Cross-border valuation raises two problems: economic conditions such as interest rates, inflation and growth differ between countries, and accounting standards differ as well. A team covering many countries faces a third problem, which is keeping assumptions consistent across all of them.
Several securities firms have adapted the single-stage FCFE model to cope. They work in real cash flows and real discount rates. The real required return is built up from a country return, which is a real required rate of return for equities in that country, adjusted for the industry, the size and the leverage of the specific company:
| Component | Contribution |
|---|---|
| Real country return | Starting point |
| Adjustment for industry | Plus or minus |
| Adjustment for size | Plus or minus |
| Adjustment for leverage | Plus or minus |
| Real required rate of return | Sum of the four lines above |
Each adjustment needs an economic justification, and should reflect a factor genuinely expected to change the risk and return of the investment.
The growth side is handled the same way. The firm supplies each analyst with an estimate of the real economic growth rate of the country, and the analyst picks a real growth rate for the company benchmarked against it. The valuation equation is Equation 6 with every variable expressed in real terms:
Mukamba Ventures, a consumer staples business based in Kinshasa, has reported volatile cash flows, so an analyst has normalised them and arrived at FCFE of CDF1,400 per share for the financial year just closed. For the Democratic Republic of the Congo the real country return is 7.30%. Three company-specific adjustments apply to that starting figure: industry, +0.80%; size, −0.33%; leverage, −0.12%. Real long-term growth for the country is put at 3.0%, and Mukamba Ventures is expected to grow about 0.5% more slowly than the country as a whole.
| Component | Rate |
|---|---|
| Real country return | 7.30% |
| Adjustment for industry | + 0.80% |
| Adjustment for size | − 0.33% |
| Adjustment for leverage | − 0.12% |
| Real required rate of return | 7.65% |
V0 = 1,400 × 1.025 ÷ (0.0765 − 0.025) = 1,435 ÷ 0.0515 = CDF27,864.
Nothing about the mechanics has changed. What has changed is that neither the Congolese inflation rate nor the company nominal growth rate had to be forecast, and in a high-inflation economy those are the hardest numbers to defend.
Sensitivity analysis
Growth in free cash flow ultimately depends on future profitability, and profitability depends on sales growth and net profit margins. Those two in turn reflect where the company sits in its own growth cycle and how attractive the economics of its industry are. A business earning high returns in an expanding market can compound profits for years, but competition eventually squeezes the margin, and the scope for winning more market or more share eventually narrows. Neither the rate of growth nor its duration is easy to forecast.
The base-year figure matters just as much. Hold the required return and growth rate fixed, and firm value or equity value moves in exact proportion to the starting FCFF or FCFE. A base year distorted by a one-off working capital swing propagates straight through to the valuation.
Sensitivity analysis is the disciplined response. Vary one input at a time between a low and a high estimate, holding the others at base case, and record the resulting value. The output is not a better point estimate; it is a map of which assumptions the answer actually depends on.
Antonio Sousa is valuing the equity of Petroleo Brasileiro, known as Petrobras, with the single-stage constant-growth FCFE model. Estimated FCFE per share for the year just ended is 2.59 Brazilian reals (BRL). His base-case inputs are an FCFE growth rate of 7.0%, a risk-free rate of 8.9%, an equity risk premium of 5.3% and a beta of 1.4.
r = 8.9% + 1.4 × 5.3% = 16.32%.
V0 = 2.59 × 1.07 ÷ (0.1632 − 0.07) = BRL29.73.
| Variable | Base case | Low | High | Value at low | Value at high |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Beta | 1.4 | 1.2 | 1.6 | 33.55 | 26.70 |
| Risk-free rate | 8.9% | 7.9% | 9.9% | 33.31 | 26.85 |
| Equity risk premium | 5.3% | 4.3% | 6.3% | 34.99 | 25.85 |
| FCFE growth rate | 7.0% | 5.0% | 9.0% | 24.02 | 38.57 |
A single growth rate held forever is rarely credible. Multistage models split the future into a near horizon that is forecast explicitly and a distant horizon that is capitalised. Free cash flow versions are more demanding than their dividend equivalents, because reaching FCFF or FCFE requires assumptions about sales, profitability, investment, financing costs and new financing all at once.
In the second stage the growth rate is a long-run sustainable rate. For a declining industry it might sit slightly below the growth rate of GDP; for an industry expected to outgrow the wider economy it might sit slightly above.
A further warning about vocabulary. In multistage dividend models, the growth rate always refers to dividends. In free cash flow models the growth rate may refer to FCFF, to FCFE, to net income, to operating income or to sales, and which one is meant must be stated or must be clear from the context. If the growth rate is a net income growth rate, FCFF and FCFE also depend on the investment in operating assets and on how that investment is financed. If it is a sales growth rate, then changes in net profit margin, in investment and in financing policy all feed through as well. When income growth steps down between stages, investment in operating assets usually steps down at the same time.
Terminal value
In Equation 17 the terminal value at time n is found from the constant-growth FCFE model, TVn = FCFEn+1 ÷ (r − g). That is not the only way. An analyst may instead apply a price multiple, for instance a chosen P/E multiplied by forecast EPS at the horizon, or a multiple of EBITDA. The choice matters more than it looks, because the present value of the terminal value is usually a large share of the total, both in the examples that follow and in practice.
Uwe Henschel is valuing TechnoSchaft on the following basis. Year 0 sales per share are €25. Sales grow at 20% annually for three years and 6% annually thereafter. The net profit margin is 10% forever. Net investment in fixed capital, that is net of depreciation, equals 50% of the sales increase. The annual increase in working capital equals 20% of the sales increase. Debt financing covers 40% of the net investment in capital equipment and working capital. Beta is 1.20, the risk-free rate is 7% and the equity risk premium is 4.5%.
| Line | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sales growth rate | 20% | 20% | 20% | 6% | 6% | 6% |
| Sales per share | 30.000 | 36.000 | 43.200 | 45.792 | 48.540 | 51.452 |
| Net profit margin | 10% | 10% | 10% | 10% | 10% | 10% |
| EPS | 3.000 | 3.600 | 4.320 | 4.579 | 4.854 | 5.145 |
| Net fixed capital investment per share | 2.500 | 3.000 | 3.600 | 1.296 | 1.374 | 1.456 |
| Working capital investment per share | 1.000 | 1.200 | 1.440 | 0.518 | 0.550 | 0.582 |
| Debt financing per share | 1.400 | 1.680 | 2.016 | 0.726 | 0.769 | 0.815 |
| FCFE per share | 0.900 | 1.080 | 1.296 | 3.491 | 3.700 | 3.922 |
| FCFE growth rate | 20% | 20% | 169% | 6% | 6% |
TV3 = FCFE4 ÷ (r − g) = 3.491 ÷ (0.124 − 0.06) = €54.55.
V0 = 0.900 ÷ 1.124 + 1.080 ÷ 1.1242 + 1.296 ÷ 1.1243 + 54.55 ÷ 1.1243
V0 = 0.801 + 0.855 + 0.913 + 38.415 = €40.98 per share.
The present value of the terminal value is €38.415 out of a total of €40.98, which is almost 94% of the whole valuation.
Growth rates rarely fall off a cliff the way the previous model assumes. A small company outgrows the share of the market that made rapid growth possible. A highly profitable company attracts competitors who erode its margins. The second family of two-stage models therefore lets growth decline through Stage 1 and settle at a sustainable rate in Stage 2. This is the free cash flow analogue of the H-model in dividend valuation.
The pattern has an important consequence for cash flow. As profitability falls and the company stops earning high returns, it usually cuts back net new investment in operating assets, and the debt financing that accompanied that investment falls with it. Many highly profitable growth companies show negative or barely positive free cash flow precisely because they are investing so heavily. When growth in profits slows, investment slows and free cash flow turns positive. The negative cash flows of the high-growth years are what create the positive ones later.
Vishal Noronha is valuing Sindhuh Enterprises on the first day of 2020. EPS for 2019 was $2.40. Growth in EPS is 30% in 2020, 18% in 2021, 12% in 2022, 9% in 2023 and 7% in 2024, and 7% thereafter. Net investment in fixed capital, net of depreciation, is $3.00 per share in 2020, then $2.50, $2.00, $1.50 and $1.00, growing at 7% annually after 2024. Working capital investment each year equals 50% of the net investment in capital items. New debt finances 30% of the net fixed capital investment and the working capital investment. Market conditions give a risk-free rate of 6.0%, an equity risk premium of 4.0% and a beta of 1.10.
| Line | 2020 | 2021 | 2022 | 2023 | 2024 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| EPS growth rate | 30% | 18% | 12% | 9% | 7% |
| EPS | 3.120 | 3.682 | 4.123 | 4.494 | 4.809 |
| Net fixed capital investment per share | 3.000 | 2.500 | 2.000 | 1.500 | 1.000 |
| Working capital investment per share | 1.500 | 1.250 | 1.000 | 0.750 | 0.500 |
| Debt financing per share | 1.350 | 1.125 | 0.900 | 0.675 | 0.450 |
| FCFE per share | −0.030 | 1.057 | 2.023 | 2.919 | 3.759 |
| Present value at 10.4% | −0.027 | 0.867 | 1.504 | 1.965 |
Debt financing is 30% of net fixed capital investment plus working capital investment. FCFE is EPS less both investments plus debt financing.
EPS compounds forward from $2.40 at the stated rates. Working capital investment is 50% of the net capital expenditure Noronha assumed, and debt financing is 30% of the two together. FCFE is net income less both investments plus new debt. For 2020 through 2023 the present values discount FCFE at 10.4%.From 2024 FCFE grows at a constant 7%, so the constant-growth model values the remainder as at the end of 2023:
V2023 = 3.759 ÷ (0.104 − 0.07) = $110.56 per share.
Discount that back four years to the end of 2019: PV = 110.56 ÷ 1.1044 = $74.425 per share.
V2019 = −0.027 + 0.867 + 1.504 + 1.965 + 74.42 = $78.73 per share.
Note that FCFE in 2020 is negative, at −$0.030 per share, even though EPS is $3.12. Investment and working capital together exceed earnings plus new debt. This is the pattern described above, and it is why a naive multiple of the first year cash flow would value the company at almost nothing.
P/E = 78.73 ÷ 2.40 = 32.8.
At the start of 2024 the expected value is $110.56 and the previous year EPS is $4.494:
P/E = 110.56 ÷ 4.494 = 24.6.
The multiple contracts sharply once the high-growth phase is behind the company. A model that held the P/E constant while growth decayed would be internally inconsistent.
The previous example built FCFE from forecast EPS. Analysts more often start from sales and derive profits, investment and financing from the sales path, sometimes division by division for a large company, aggregating the divisional free cash flows at the end. The next example does exactly that, with both the sales growth rate and the profit margin declining as the company matures.
Medina Werks is a Canadian manufacturer whose competitive advantage is expected to erode. Analyst Flavio Torino expects that erosion to show up in falling sales growth and falling margins. Current sales are C$600 million. Over the next six years the annual sales growth rate is projected at 20%, 16%, 12%, 10%, 8% and 7%, and the net profit margin at 14%, 13%, 12%, 11%, 10.5% and 10%. From Year 6 the 7% sales growth rate and the 10% net profit margin persist indefinitely. Capital expenditure net of depreciation equals 60% of the sales increase each year, and working capital investment equals 25% of the sales increase. Debt financing funds 40% of the investment in net capital items and working capital. Beta is 1.10, the risk-free rate is 6.0% and the equity risk premium is 4.5%. There are 70 million shares outstanding.
| Line | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sales growth rate | 20% | 16% | 12% | 10% | 8% | 7% |
| Net profit margin | 14% | 13% | 12% | 11% | 10.50% | 10% |
| Sales | 720.000 | 835.200 | 935.424 | 1,028.966 | 1,111.284 | 1,189.074 |
| Net profit | 100.800 | 108.576 | 112.251 | 113.186 | 116.685 | 118.907 |
| Net fixed capital investment | 72.000 | 69.120 | 60.134 | 56.125 | 49.390 | 46.674 |
| Working capital investment | 30.000 | 28.800 | 25.056 | 23.386 | 20.579 | 19.447 |
| Debt financing | 40.800 | 39.168 | 34.076 | 31.804 | 27.988 | 26.449 |
| FCFE | 39.600 | 49.824 | 61.137 | 65.480 | 74.703 | 79.235 |
| Present value at 10.95% | 35.692 | 40.475 | 44.763 | 43.211 | 44.433 |
From Year 6 sales grow at 7% and net income is 10% of sales, so net income grows at 7% too. Because investment and debt financing are pegged to the sales increase, they also grow at 7%, and so does FCFE. The terminal value at the end of Year 5 is therefore:
TV5 = 79.235 ÷ (0.1095 − 0.07) = C$2,005.95 million.
Its present value is 2,005.95 ÷ 1.10955 = C$1,193.12 million.
Adding the present values of Years 1 to 5:
MV = 35.692 + 40.475 + 44.763 + 43.211 + 44.433 + 1,193.12 = C$1,401.69 million.
The present value of the terminal value is C$1,193.12 million of C$1,401.69 million, again roughly 85% of the total. Note also how differently the two series behave. Net profit growth almost stalls in Year 4, rising only from C$112.251 million to C$113.186 million, because the margin falls nearly as fast as sales grow. FCFE that same year rises from 61.137 to 65.480, a gain of about 7%, because the investment burden is shrinking. Earnings growth and free cash flow growth can diverge for years at a time.
Three-stage models extend the two-stage framework in the obvious way. One common version assumes a constant growth rate in each of the three stages, applied to sales, profits and investment in fixed and working capital, with external financing tied either to the level of sales or to the change in sales. A simpler variant applies the growth rate directly to FCFF or FCFE. A second common version keeps constant growth in Stages 1 and 3 and lets growth decline through Stage 2, which is the transition period.
No real company follows either script exactly. Analysts use these models because they are useful approximations to cash flow streams that in reality wander from year to year, not because the pattern is literally believed.
Charles Jones is evaluating Reliant Home Furnishings with a three-stage model. Current FCFF is $745 million and 309.39 million shares are outstanding. The equity beta is 0.90, the risk-free rate is 5.04% and the equity risk premium is 5.5%. The cost of debt is 7.1% and the marginal tax rate is 34%. The capital structure is 20% debt and 80% equity, and long-term debt is $1.518 billion. FCFF grows at 8.8% annually in Years 1 to 4, then 7.4% in Year 5, 6.0% in Year 6 and 4.6% in Year 7, and 3.2% in Year 8 and thereafter.
WACC = 0.20 × 7.1% × (1 − 0.34) + 0.80 × 9.99% = 8.93%.
| Line | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Growth rate | 8.80% | 8.80% | 8.80% | 8.80% | 7.40% | 6.00% | 4.60% | 3.20% |
| FCFF | 811 | 882 | 959 | 1,044 | 1,121 | 1,188 | 1,243 | 1,283 |
| Present value at 8.93% | 744 | 743 | 742 | 741 | 731 | 711 | 683 |
TV7 = FCFF8 ÷ (WACC − g) = 1,283 ÷ (0.0893 − 0.032) = $22,391 million.
Discounting that back seven years: PV = 22,391 ÷ 1.08937 = $12,304 million.
The present values of the first seven years of FCFF sum to $5,097 million, so the total value of the firm is 12,304 + 5,097 = $17,401 million.
17,401 − 1,518 = $15,883 million.
Divide by shares outstanding:
$15,883 million ÷ 309.39 million = $51.34 per share.
Once again the terminal value dominates: $12,304 million of $17,401 million, or about 71% of firm value, sits beyond the explicit forecast horizon, and that is with a full seven years modelled year by year.
Environmental, social and governance factors can move a valuation materially. Some of them are quantitative and enter the model directly: a projected environmental fine is simply a cash outflow, and a delay to a project start date simply moves the revenue. Others are qualitative and resist measurement. One workable treatment for those is to add a risk premium to the cost of equity, sized by the judgement of the analyst. There is no formula for the size of such an adjustment, which is precisely why it must be disclosed and defended rather than buried.
American Copper Mining Company (ACMC) is a large US-based miner. Copper mining is resource intensive and heavily regulated. ACMC recently announced the acquisition of a new copper mine in a very dry region of Latin America, and the market welcomed the news, lifting the share price to US$110. The company expects the mine to have a useful life of approximately 15 years. Jane Dodd, a research analyst with a hold rating on the shares, is testing whether the acquisition changes her assessment.
Dodd identifies three ESG considerations that in her view most affect the value of the mine and of the company:
- Local government. A mining licence is required, and before it is granted ACMC must submit a comprehensive rehabilitation plan showing how the natural habitat will be restored. At its other sites ACMC has struggled to get such plans approved promptly. Dodd concludes management is too optimistic and assumes five years, rather than the three years management anticipates, before the mine can operate.
- Labour. ACMC pays slightly less than competitors in the region and, unlike many of them, does not tie executive pay to worker safety. Competitors whose wages were not adjusted for inflation have suffered strikes and production interruptions. Dodd is concerned about labour unrest and the reputational risk that would follow.
- Water. Mining consumes large volumes of water, and water-related costs are among the biggest expenditures for miners. In a very dry region, Dodd believes the capital expenditure needed to build water wells has been significantly underestimated.
She values ACMC with a three-stage FCFF model. Stage 1 covers 2020 to 2024, before the mine operates. Stage 2 covers 2025 to 2039, while it operates. Stage 3 covers 2040 onward, after it closes.
Revenue assumptions: total revenues in 2020 were $1 billion, and revenues excluding the new mine grow 2% annually through 2024 and then stay constant while the mine operates. The mine adds US$400 million of revenue in its first year, 2025, and that mine revenue grows 10% annually for the next six years, 2026 through 2031, then stays constant from 2032 through 2039. After the mine closes in 2039, total revenues grow 1% in perpetuity.
| Assumption | Value |
|---|---|
| EBITDA | 30% of total revenues, all three stages |
| Taxes | 25% |
| Fixed capital investment, excluding water | 50% of EBITDA, all three stages |
| Depreciation | 40% of capital expenditures, all three stages |
| Working capital investment | 10% of total revenue, all three stages |
| Required return on debt, pre-tax | 5% |
| Risk-free rate | 3% |
| Equity beta | 1.2 |
| Equity risk premium | 5% |
| Debt ratio | 50% |
| Water-related fixed capital investment | 10% of non-water capital expenditures, added on top |
| ESG adjustment to the equity risk premium | 75 basis points |
Cost of equity = 3% + 1.2 × 5% + 0.75% = 9.75%, where the last term is the ESG premium.
WACC = 0.5 × 3.75% + 0.5 × 9.75% = 6.75%.
Without the ESG adjustment the cost of equity would be 9.00% and the WACC 6.375%, so the qualitative concerns raise the discount rate by 37.5 basis points on their own, before any cash flow effect.
FCFF = 225.0 + 15.0 − 150.0 − 2.0 = $88.0 million.
For 2025, revenue jumps to $1,482 million as the mine contributes $400 million. EBITDA is $444.7 million and after tax $333.5 million; the depreciation shield is $22.2 million; capital expenditure is $222.4 million, with a further $22.2 million of water-related spending; and working capital, at 10% of revenue, rises by $40.0 million in the year the revenue steps up. FCFF is $71.2 million, below the 2024 figure of $95.3 million. Free cash flow falls in the year the mine opens because the revenue step change drags a large working capital investment behind it, and because the water wells are being paid for at the same time.
| Year | Total revenues | EBITDA | FCFF | PV of FCFF at 6.75% |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2020 | 1,000 | 300.0 | 88.0 | 82.5 |
| 2021 | 1,020 | 306.0 | 89.8 | 78.8 |
| 2022 | 1,040 | 312.1 | 91.6 | 75.3 |
| 2023 | 1,061 | 318.4 | 93.4 | 71.9 |
| 2024 | 1,082 | 324.7 | 95.3 | 68.7 |
| 2025 | 1,482 | 444.7 | 71.2 | 48.1 |
| 2026 | 1,522 | 456.7 | 110.2 | 69.7 |
| 2027 | 1,566 | 469.9 | 113.1 | 67.1 |
| 2030 | 1,727 | 518.0 | 123.6 | 60.3 |
| 2031 | 1,791 | 537.3 | 127.9 | 58.4 |
| 2034 | 1,791 | 537.3 | 134.3 | 38.8 |
| 2035 | 1,791 | 537.3 | 134.3 | 36.4 |
| 2036 | 1,809 | 542.7 | 161.0 |
Revenue from the new mine alone is 400.0 in 2025, 440.0 in 2026, 484.0 in 2027, 644.2 in 2030 and 708.6 in 2031, after which it stays flat. The 2020 working capital investment reflects the change from 2019 to 2020, and for simplicity Dodd uses the same change in 2020 as in 2021.
Summing the discounted flows through 2035 gives $1,178 million, and the present value of the perpetual free cash flow from 2036 onward is $758 million. Total present value of future FCFF is therefore $1,936 million. With a 50% debt ratio the market value of debt is $968 million, so the fair value of equity is 1,936 − 968 = $968 million. Across 10 million shares that is $97 per share.The shares trade at US$110. The model says $97. Dodd downgrades from hold to sell. The ESG work did the damage in three separate places: a two-year delay to first production, an addition to required capital expenditure for water, and 75 basis points on the cost of equity.
Turning a value estimate into a verdict
The last step in any free cash flow valuation is a comparison, not a calculation. Compute the intrinsic value per share, set it against the market price, and label the stock. Where intrinsic value exceeds price the stock is undervalued; where it falls below price the stock is overvalued; where the two are close enough to lie inside the uncertainty of the model, the honest conclusion is fairly valued. The ACMC case ends at $97 against $110, a shortfall of about 12%, which is well outside rounding error and supports a sell.
Two disciplines protect this final step. First, the sensitivity analysis of the previous section tells you how wide the plausible range around $97 really is; if the range straddles $110, the correct label is fairly valued rather than overvalued. Second, the terminal value share of total value tells you how much of the verdict rests on assumptions about a period no one can see. A verdict that flips when the perpetual growth rate moves by 50 basis points is a weak verdict, and should be described as such.
Free cash flow valuation values the assets that generate operating cash flows, or that are needed to generate them. It says nothing about the rest of the balance sheet. Where a company holds significant non-operating assets, such as cash in excess of operating needs, excess marketable securities or land held for investment, those assets must be valued separately and added on.
The rule generalises. If an asset was left out of the set used to project future cash flows, its estimated value belongs in the total. Companies frequently hold substantial noncurrent investments in stocks and bonds that are financial investments rather than operating subsidiaries. Those should be carried at current market value, and any holding reported at book value under accounting convention should be revalued to market before it is added.
The mirror image of this rule is a common examination trap. If excess cash has already been included in the cash flow projection, adding it again double counts. The discipline is to decide once, explicitly, which assets are inside the projection and which are outside, and then to be consistent.
Pulling the reading together
Five ideas carry most of the weight. First, free cash flow is what a company can distribute, which is why it is the right measure for an investor with control and often a better measure than dividends even for one without. Second, FCFF and FCFE can be reached from net income, from CFO, from EBIT or from EBITDA, and every route must give the same number; if two routes disagree, a definition has slipped. Third, FCFF is discounted at WACC and needs a debt deduction, while FCFE is discounted at the required return on equity and does not. Fourth, transactions with shareholders leave free cash flow untouched, while changes in leverage move FCFE up in the year of issuance and down thereafter. Fifth, in every multistage model, the terminal value dominates, so the sustainable growth rate and the normalisation of the final explicit year deserve more attention than the early years that are easier to forecast.